by Jason Guenther

AN EXEGETICAL ANALYSIS ON THE CORRELATIONS BETWEEN

BIBLICAL DEMONOLOGY AND CONTEMPORARY UFOLOGY

 

     The intention of this document, is to show obvious "truths" connecting the angels and demons of the bible, with the modern day anomalies known as "Aliens", and their craft. That the bible DOES speak about these anomalies, and will be shown to be shockingly true. I shall remain for the most part within the confines of the 1611 English version of the King James Bible, and Strong's Greek and Hebrew concordance, even though I don't subscribe to the "King James Only" club. I know, that ALL the translations that we have are rooted back to the SAME sources. The difference between our modern day versions of the bible is in the choice of adjectives used in the description of words from the original languages (Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic, chaldean), and outright blatant "liberties" taken by the translators. The reality is, ALL of our versions have translating errors that have distorted CORRECT  biblical interpretations of many areas of scripture. One of the reasons for this is due to linguistic barriers (our English language is considerably smaller than the Greek and Hebrew, with limited word definition in comparison). This has caused a great deal of confusion in specific areas of interpretation. The King James isn't really any better than the other versions (there's some 6000 ADDED words, plus numerous translating errors and interpretation liberties taken), but it does NOT step on the DEITY of Jesus Christ like most other translations. The fact of the matter is, man HAS had his grubby mitts on the Word of God, but God designed the Word in such a way, that the original meanings can NOT be tampered with by man, no matter how hard he tries. The Lord has done this with the "etymology" (the science of words and their origins) of his written Word. It is ONLY from the etymology, that 21st century man can ever know for sure what God really has said and thereby meant. Etymology is failsafe in this regard. Man for all intensive purposes, has translated and interpreted God's word according to HIS perspective and contextualization for 2000 years. The original "oracles" of God (Hebrew prophets and scribes), managed to keep Gods word "pure" etymologically in translation up to the time of Christ, enabling us today to have a pure "source" (Old Testament). Etymology is the "foundation" of all other areas of theology (eschatology, hermeneutics, etc.). The same principle applies to the New Testament. It was written in a form of Greek called "koine", which is pure etymologically. The emphasis of this dissertation will be in the area of the bible interpretation, as it is THE authority of ALL TRUTH as far as I'm concerned. Therefore, the answers to ALL things can be found in its pages. I will refer to sources outside the canon of scripture, when it is deemed imperative to subject illumination, without disturbing biblical integrity. There are basically four major time-frames in the bible dealing with major activity of Satan and his host. They are:

      I will be dealing with all four of these time periods in no set order, as most of what is being revealed about the enemy, is interlaced in prophecy. Also, because somethings must be brought to light first, in order for other things to be understood. I shall leave and discuss the area of pre-adamic time till the end of this document, as it must be discussed and looked at by itself.

     Most of this dissertation will be spent in the area of interpreting the facts from the bible as to whether the Lord has "spoken" on the possible connection between the modern day mystery of UFO's and their occupants and the bible. The reason for this, is that many people are familiar with the general facts about UFO's, and not too many people are familiar with the fact that the bible has MUCH to say about it. It is my opinion that, if I were to let the bible speak for itself, it will bring you intoALL TRUTH, even the REAL truth of what you already know, and don't know, about UFO's. I am not even going to entertain the ignorance of whether UFO's exist or not with you. If you say they do NOT, you are utterly ignorant of the facts, lying to yourself, and probably have never taken a look at the facts to begin with!. I'm sorry for being so abrasive, but I must speak truthfully. The evidence is OVERWHELMING for their existence, but its WHAT they are, that causes so much controversy. In case you don't know much of the general facts about UFO's, I shall make a list of the highlights, and integrate this side of the spectrum later on in the document. There has been well over 6000 "professionally" written books on the subject, but, just in case you are not aware of some of the facts, I'll recap for you. Here are a few.
 

       By the 2nd century A.D., what was once considered a bible truth, had now become rank"heresy" and the "highest of blasphemies", thus being denounced by the clergy of the Church. The Church at this time assumed this position after agreeing with the "interpretation" of one Christian writer, Julius Africanus (A.D. 200-245). Julius would "formulate" an interpretation of a very controversial scripture verse, thereby setting the course for what would be a defection away from what the early Church first believed. This is centered on a couple of   KEY scripture verses that "unlocks" much of end-time bible prophecy. Julius Africanus "interpretation" of the term "son's of God" in the Old Testament, was upheld by the Jews at the time also, when Rabbi Simeon ben Jochai in the 2nd century A.D., "cursed " all those who believed in the LITERAL INTERPRETATION OF THE BIBLE, concerning the meaning of the term "sons of God". That's right, it was considered to be "blasphemous" to believe in what the bible said!. The"bible" at that time, consisted of the Septuagint (which was around when Christ walked the earth), Latin Vulgate, and various Hebrew versions of the Old Testament (Torah etc.). The first "complete" bible was in the form of the Latin Vulgate. The fact is, there is NO room for mis-translation here, which shall prove that the Church willfully chose to become APOSTATE on the meaning of "sons of God", and still remains today. This, even though all bibles translated after the Septuagint LXX, were translated in part from the Codex Alexandrinus. The Codex translates the term "sons of God" as "ANGELS of God". Every single modern day translation, was translated from the Codex Alexandrinus to some degree. The Latin vulgate would be the first translation to "cover over" INTENTIONALLY, the meaning of this term. By the late 4th century A.D., the Syrian church had managed to make the interpretation of Julius Africanus, known as the "good son's of Seth view", as official church "doctrine". Subsequently, it became policy of Papal theologians at that time, to eradicate firmly from the teachings of the Church, any doctrine or dogma contrary to the "son's of Seth view". The fact of the matter is, this interpretation and its apparent doctrine is a flat-out, heretical LIE, and completely apostate to the Word of God. This interpretation has and still does hide the KEY behind Satan's end-time "master plan" for these last day's, and completely undermines much end-time prophecy interpretation, keeping the entire body of Christ in utter DARKNESS!

       This controversy, surrounds the interpretation of the term "son's of God" used in the books of Genesis and Job. The term is properly rendered bene ha elohim in the Hebrew. The predicament here is that both the Septuagint and the torah translates this term as meaning that of ANGELS, and thereby creating one of the most disturbing doctrinal dilemmas the Church has ever had to face. The reality is, this rendering is the TRUTH. There is NO way to get around this one. As a matter of fact, it is IMPOSSIBLE to avoid the stark truth of this meaning, yet the false prophets and teachers have managed to perpetuate the "good sons of Seth" heresy for 1900 years via false theology. Those proponents that would say that the Holy Spirit would clarify over time the now accepted "son's of Seth" interpretation, are HERETICS!. God doesn't play games with his Word, if that's what it says, that's what it says!, and God MEANS what he says. Why must we try to fit Gods Word around our own idealology of what REALITY should or should not be.

        It's not enough that the bible clearly translates "sons of God' as "angels", but the propitiators of the real "lie" will not give you an answer as to why the supposed "good" sons of Seth would instigate an action which denigrates down to nothing more then the RAPE of women it would seem on a mass scale, when you study the text. These angels TOOK them "wives" of ALL THAT THEY CHOSE. What do you think, there was a "marriage", and a little white house with picket fence, and they lived happily ever after? NOT! What God is saying here is very clear. This "union" was not "amicable". Also, if the sons of Seth were so "good", why were they not spared the flood instead of Noah's family? The sons of Seth interpretation would also seem to denote that the "daughters of Seth", weren't too "good looking"?, and if they weren't very good looking, how is it that there was any sons of Seth? Are you getting my drift?, no matter how you break down the sons of Seth view, it completely falls apart. The original scriptural text is quite plain, that they were "angels". But what must be understood is that these angel's are FALLEN angels. Ancient Hebrew tradition holds that they "came down" in the days of Jared. Interestingly enough, the word Jared in the Hebrew is Yaradh, meaning "descent", or "shall come down"[Strong's ref. 3382]. Just so you know, MOST of the early Church fathers and reputed Christian reformers believed in the "angelic" or the "ancient interpretation" view. Here's a few:

The modern day bible scholars who support the "angel view" are also noteworthy here:
 

        There is further confirmation of the "original truth" if one wants to go outside of the canon of the Holy Writ. The works of the Apocrypha and Pseudo-pigrapha, and the Syriac version of the Old Testament all confirm the bibles interpretation, including the Dead Sea Scrolls. Most notable is the pseudo-pigraphal book of Enoch, which WAS in the original canon amongst the works of the Apocrypha. St. Augustine (A.D. 354-430) would claim that on account of the book of Enoch being too old (ob nimiam antiquitatem), it was not allowed to be part of the Canon of Scripture. Other apocryphal works such as the Book of Jubilees,Testament of the 12 Patriarchs, the Genesis Apocryphon (1947 Dead Sea Scrolls), and the Book of Noah, all refer to the fallen angels or "watchers" siring "nephillim" with woman. The Greek word for angels is "angelos" in the New Testament, but it comes from the word "Mal'ak" in the Hebrew which means "messenger". The word "watchers" means [Strong's ref. 5894 iyr (Chald.), eer; a watcher, i.e. an angel:- watcher]. But this comes from the primitive root [Strong's ref. 5782 uwr, oor; a prim. root; opening the eyes; awake, lift up, master, raise up, stir up]. These are very interesting adjectives of description indeed. The sudden change from the "angel view" from the 4th century on was so dramatic, that the Church that once upheld the "angel view", would now torture and murder millions of "heretics" over the next few century's under the INQUISITION, based in part upon the "angel heresy". Included amongst the heretics were the Yezidi's (devil worshipers), Cathar's, Arian's, Bogomils etc., whose heretical theology's all instituted to some degree, the belief that angels (or demon's) procreated with mankind.

        Once one has grasped the profound grammifications of the "angel view", then one will not have a problem with what God says in the next couple of verses of Gen.6. If its not weird enough that fallen angels "manifested into flesh" before the flood, then your going to have to contend with the problem of the "offspring" of this union.

       I want to make this perfectly clear, the word "giants" translated in your bible is a clear cut INTERPRETATION LIBERTY from the Greek. The wrong "root" was chosen for the translation of the word "giants" on purpose. The root that was used is gigantes (giants), but thats NOT correct. Yes, they were "giant", but thats not WHAT they were. The translators did not interpret from the source root. The primitive root of "gigantes" in the Greek translates "gigas", meaning EARTHBORN. They are also called "gibbhor" or "gibborim" in the Hebrew. You see, your King James bible is translated from the Greek and Hebrew from cover to cover!. In the case of Gen.6:4, the translators specifically chose the Septuagint LXX for the word "giants", which was translated from Hebrew to Greek. The reason?, the source origin Hebrew translation is too "un-believable" (even though its true), because they REFUTED the "angel view". The correct translation in the Hebrew is [Strong's ref. 5303 nephiyl - nef-eel; prop. a feller, i.e. a bully or tyrant: - giant]. Its proper use in the plural for this word is NEPHILLIM (giants). Though this is the root given, it is NOT all of the meaning of the word. You must "trace the roots , to find the fruit", and what you come up with is [Strong's ref. 5307 naphal- naw-fal; a prim. root; to fall, be cast down, cease, fugitive, die, fail, be judged, throw down] and also the ancient chaldean root [Strong's ref. 5309 nephel- neh-fel; something fallen, i.e.an abortion]. Though these are descriptive words for these "offspring" (nephillim), they are much more descriptive of their "fathers" who bore them. What seems to give the credence to the "rape" scenario, is the use of the words "...came in unto..." in Gen.6:4. It implies that of "forcefulness". Also quite interesting, is the term "...and they bare children unto them". It might not seem curious to you at first, but God already stated at the top of the verse that"... there were nephillim (giants) in the earth in those days...". He is emphasizing the fact that there was a definite "sexual union" between human females and "fallen angels", creating a HYBRID progeny called the nephillim. These are what are referred to in ancient mythology as DEMI-GODS(half man - half God).

        If most of what you've read and learned about the "gods" of mythology isn't starting to ring some bells and whistles in your head by now, then your not alive!. It is imperative that you notice that the "nephillim" are NOT the same as "fallen angels". You must understand that "fallen" in the case of these angels, is a "state" rather then a "condition" at FIRST. What I mean is, what happened to the fallen angels after they "procreated" with the daughters of men? Every indication would seem to say that the fallen angels "left" in the same way they "...came unto..". They materialized "out of the "flesh" and back into their original form (spirit)", leaving behind their offspring, the nephillim on earth. When they came unto the daughters of men, they must have manifested FLESH. There is no other explanation and NO reason to believe this not possible as the bible is fraught with occasions of "angels" appearing in the flesh, eating, drinking, talking, fighting etc, and then "de-materializing" back into "spirit". Do you think the daughters of men were wives to phantoms or thin air?. As uneasy as this will make you feel, it is a REALITY. But then you're going to say "now wait a minute here, angels are sexless. The bible says so, so they couldn't have copulated with women!". Well.... your bible does NOT tell you the angels are "sexless". This view stems from another misinterpretation of scripture. The distortion of Matt 22:30, Mark 12:25, and Luke 20:35. These verses of scripture, are some of the most mistranslated verses of all time. Jesus in no way denotes anything to do with the angels "sex", rather he is stating there is no need for angels to marry, as they are created ETERNAL. There is no need for them to "extend themselves". Marriage was created for prolonging the existence of a "fallen" human race through "procreation!". This IS the point he is making, because the fact of the matter is, all the "host of heaven", good and bad including the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, are ALL MALE!. You don't like it? TOUGH, cause thats what your bible TEACHES. Oh, and another thing, all of the "nephillim"?... were male ALSO, as there weren't any "mighty woman of renown", only MEN. Now, NO I'm not "sexist" or "racist", I'm just trying to state the abject facts according to the Holy Writ. There is New Testament confirmation however, that directly confirms the "angel view":

       It should be noticed here that this is a very unique translation for the word "strange" here. It is one of 18 different translations, and only used in one place, one time, right here in Jude 7. It is[Strong's ref. 2087 heteros,het - er - os; of uncert. orig., other or different,:-altered, strange]. And it would seem that Peter affirms this as well:

       As you can see, there seems to be harmony within the Old and New Testaments as to this strange anomaly I am bringing to your attention. The "angels" held in tartarus are from the days of Noah, and shall be released just prior to Judgement. The "angels that sinned" are those that "copulated" with women. These are held along with the "rapha" (demons from the nephillim). Demons not in tartarus right now (on the earth) are from the nephillim AFTER the flood. These are the same demons Jesus contended with in his time, and the ones that are seen today. But right now I'd like to draw your attention to the flood for a moment.

        To put it in a nut-shell "all HELL broke lose just before the flood". This interaction between angels and men created an enormous upheaval. God said that "ALL FLESH WAS CORRUPT" upon the face of the earth (Gen.6:12). This sounds to me like things got way out of hand, and this "interaction" between fallen angel and man had become "all encompassing". Like a plague, the fallen angels "infected" the entire human race. More disturbing, is that the scripture gives the allusion that this had an impact on the animal kingdom as well:

        God over-emphasizes the fact that he had to DESTROY "every living thing" off the face of the earth (except Noah and family and "carefully selected" animals). This is an extremely "stern" action and has never really been properly understood as to why? Now you KNOW why, God HAD to, otherwise no life COULD have been spared. Left outside the hands of God, man and beast would have been utterly annihilated, by "nephillim infestation", and or by themselves. This interaction also seemed to instill irrevocable destruction to the "spiritual nature" of mankind, as "...that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was onlyEVIL CONTINUALLY" (Gen.6:5). There was only one way for God to handle this dilemma, by "wiping the proverbial slate clean!". And thats exactly what the Lord did....the flood. Satan had attempted to infiltrate ALL FLESH LITERALLY, to try and thwart the inevitable birth of Jesus Christ. Had God not taken the stern action of THE FLOOD, the doom of all mankind would have been a surety. The "plague" of fallen angels completely and utterly perverted ALL FLESH, even the animal kingdom, as God destroyed them as well. We may never know the full extent of the grammifications dealing with the flood event, but we do have somewhat of a "picture", if we will believe the bible. Like most of the "deeper" truths in the bible, they are not shown "openly" on the outside, but rather "mixed throughout" the scripture. These truths are only discernable when one digs deep into ALL the Word, and pulls these points together. There are things written in the bible, that NO ONE HAS FOUND AS YET as things have not occured for the prophecy given to be revealed. God has made his Word this way. Somethings must come to pass for these truths to come to the forefront, and so it is with the area of the "nephillim" in the bible. It has been the modern UFO era, that has brought to light the truths revealed in Genesis 6, and also confirming what Christ had said about the time of the end, and its similarity to the time of the flood. As a matter of fact, the bible says the end will be EXACTLY like the time before the flood. Though Satan failed the first time, he will, and is attempting it once again for his TIME IS SHORT. The reality of this truth is and will be totally denied by the Church at large, for it goes against THEIR DOCTRINES AS TAUGHT BY MEN. It does not matter, for the TRUTH will always remain THE TRUTH, no matter how much they try to deny it.  Now Noah and the seven others of his family were "spared". What the Church will teach you, is that Noah was "perfect". He was a "just" man, and thereby by he was "superiorly righteous" before the Lord. Nope, you have to dig deeper then that. The word perfect here is translated in the Hebrew [Strong's ref. 8549 tamiym, taw - meem; entire, without blemish,complete, perfect,undefiled,whole]. It comes from an even earlier root, tamam, meaning be clean, consume,andmake an end [Strong's ref. 8552]. Now, all these adjectives are descriptive of "sacrifices" and used in this context. Certain sacrifices or burnt offerings, had to be made with animals that were "unblemished" or perfect "specimens" (physically). These were considered "undefiled" and acceptable offerings unto the Lord. Face it folks, we found out after the flood that Noah wasn't at all that "perfect" now was he (he was a drunk!). No, I'm pretty sure the Word of God is indicating that Noah's "bloodline" was "undefiled" by the fallen angel "invasion". His "genealogy" was unaffected by the fallen ones, thereby allowing an untainted bloodline to pass through the flood, which pass's on through to the 1^st advent of the Savior. Both the spiritual and the physical aspects of "pureness" or "perfection" (un-blemished, without spot) are represented in the scripture. What has never been properly explained is the "physical" aspect. The interpretation by the Church leaves God looking like a "bumbling idiot" when it comes to his "creation". No, there is something "deeper" inferred by God in the LAWS of "cleanliness" and "purification" as to what is interpreted commonly today. God does not put just any old thing in his Word, and expect you to uphold them. No, there is precise "meaning" and "purpose" in every last JOT AND TITTLE of his Word. The whole mystery of 'why the flood?' becomes clear when one acknowledges the truth of Genesis ch.6. You will begin to understand "why" the person of Noah, and his "purpose" according to the flood event. You will understand why Noah was "spotless" and without "blemish". This will not seem at all too remarkable when one looks at the typology and eschatology concerning Noah in comparison with Christ. There is a hidden message in the genealogy from Adam to Noah. It is quite remarkable in that it really sums up to be a prophecy concerning Christ in the most simplest of ways you can think of. If we take the names of Adams descendants up to Noah, and translate them from Hebrew to English, we find this remarkable message of Jesus Christ's mission, for the redemption of all mankind, from the "curse" exacted at the fall.
 

       This truly is a "bible code" if there ever was or is such a thing. I find it very unlikely, that a group of Jewish Rabbi's would deliberately contrive to hide an expression of the Christian Gospel within their venerated Torah!. Indeed, this was by supernatural design.

        Now, what on God's green earth could possibly be the PURPOSE of the fallen angels "procreating" with mankind you ask? Didn't you read your bible? You have to go back a couple of chapters in Genesis to find yet another verse of scripture that has NEVER been properly interpreted or understood:

        This is nothing other than a clear cut "declaration of war" and HOW it will be fought, and is initiated directly from God. What has completely been overlooked, is this verse of scripture says that Satan has a SEED. The use of the word "seed" here is being used in the context of "children" or "offspring". Both uses of the word "seed" here comes from the SAME translation in the Hebrew [Strong's ref. 2233 zera, zeh - rah; seed, fig. plant, sowing-time, posterity:- x carnally, child, fruitful]. The use of this word here is in the context of "child bearing". What this is revealing, is that the WAR is being fought out against the "seed of mankind" (or woman), by the SEED OF THE SERPENT (nephillim). You won't completely understand all this yet, but it will all become "crystal clear" when I begin to discuss the ANTICHRIST, later on. The other fallen angels that are with Satan are NOT his "seed". ONLY the "nephillim" are Satan's seed, even though the rest of the fallen angels are submissive to his purposes and will. Only the seed of the nephillim came through the carnal union of fallen angels and mankind, all other beings of the angelic host were "created in heaven". This verse of scripture ALONE, indicates that there was (is?, going to be?) a definite interaction on a "physical" scale, between mankind (woman) and "non-human (but with corporeal bodies) supernatural entities". The "target" of attack by the "seed of the serpent", is the "seed of the woman" that Jesus would come from. It is directed and focused at Jesus's "bloodline", even though the seed of mankind is targeted as well (spoken generally). Satan tried to directly "defile" the bloodline from which Messiah would come from before the flood, and it will be shown that he did after, has been still, and is going to eventually come out with his "secret weapon". The enmity against mankind in general will culminate with the advent of Antichrist(Satan's "special" seed). But lets now SEE if this is so. Was Satan put out of the business of "hybridization" by the flood?, or is he still doing it?

       By the time Abram (not yet Abraham) was pursuing his "kidnaped" brother Lot into Danite country, king Chedorlaomer of ancient Elam, was "slaughtering" TRIBES of these nephillim all over the land (Gen.14:5). This is before the eventual "erasure" of Sodom and Gommorah. This has always stumped theologians. How did these things show up after the flood? And how could they "multiply" so rapidly into what seems to be "races" when studying the text?. There are various Hebrew myths that claim that king "Og" of Bashan (a nephillim), was descended from another nephillim called "Hiya", who was the son of the fallen angel called "Shemyaza" (a watcher. See book of Enoch). "Og" was said to have "escaped the Deluge by clinging to a rope ladder attached to the Ark, and being fed by Noah through a pothole" according to myth. The initial nephillim "infestation", was completely erased by the flood. ALL flesh perished. The "physical" structures (bodies) of these entities were destroyed . This was NOT their final end. These initial nephillim were transformed from their "nephillim" form, into their newest incarnation, DEMONS! (disembodied nephillim). A large number of these demon remnants of the nephillim from the flood, are NOW being held in tartarus(hell. To be released in the future), while the rest are confined to the earth. To show that this is true, one only has to look where the word "demon" comes from. The word "demon", which is exclusive to the Greek, was translated from the words "seirim" and "shedim", in the Hebrew. "Seirim", is the name of a "tribe" of nephillim, which are related to have been native to the area of Mt. Seir, south of the Dead Sea. The name comes from the Hebrew [Strong's ref. 8165 Seiyr, say - eer; seir, a mountain of Idumaea and its aboriginal occupants.]. But the root for this word is the most revealing[Strongs ref. 8163 saiyr, saw - eer; shaggy, a he-goat; by anal. a faun:- devil, goat, hairy, satyr.]. And even more [Strong's ref. 8175 saar, saw - ar; a prim. root, to storm, i.e. fear:- be horribly afraid, be tempestuous, come like a storm.]. It is the root "saiyr", that we get the Greek translation for"daemon" (demon). The scary thing about these root words for the name "Seirim", is they all indicate that these things were REAL TANGIBLE CREATURES. They were "aboriginal occupants", they were "hairy" and "shaggy", they are related to being "fauns" (fairies), "satyrs" (may I point your attention to the "myth" of the Greek god Pan), and DEVILS, but they were tangible, PHYSICAL manifestations that lived and were "native" to some areas. The word "shedim" in the Hebrew means [Strong's ref. 7700 shed, shade; a demon:- devil.]. This comes from an earlier, and quite interesting [Strong's ref. 7736 shuwd, shood; a prim. root; to swell up, fig. (by impl. of insolence),to devastate:- waste.]. It was the combination of these two Hebrew words, that we get our version, demons. The "shedim" are the most ancient of all nephillim tribes listed in the bible. The source of the root is said to predate the ancient chaldean it comes from. Along with the "seirim", these two tribes were pre-flood. Their historical traces are found only in vestigial remnants of ancient Hebrew and chaldean legends, and in the Hebrew language itself. Their REALITY is confirmed by the Holy Writ. In the above illustration, I have placed the name"Beth-Rapha"as a possible connection to the appearance of the nephillim after the flood. The reason why, is that this families name means literally "house of the dead" or "house of the Rapha" (demon). It must be completely are NOT nephillim, and nephillim are NOT demons and so on. The term "demon" is generic, just as "angel" is generic. Nephillim are "demonic", but not demons. What we are dealing with here, is the HIERARCHY of the ENEMY. This is referred to by the apostle Paul in the New Testament as the "kosmokrateros". Demons have their own subset hierarchy as will be shown. It is important that you understand this fact. The Church by and large, doesn't have a clue as to how Satan's hierarchy works, and as such, "my people perish for lack of knowledge". This diagram is by no means comprehensive, but it shows that there is a "pattern of succession" that occurs from angel, to fallen angel, to nephillim, down to demon. It shows HOW the host of heaven (evil alignment) became structured trough a system of "de-generation" (they fall from one "stage", to the next, each time relinquishing some their abilities and power). It would seem that this is the price that is payed by the fallen angels for their tampering with the flesh. The difference between a fallen angel and a demon, is that the fallen angel has the ability and power to "manifest and de-manifest flesh", and more than likely still retains most of his powers and abilities from his "first habitation". The fallen angel is more or less "held at bay as to what he is allowed to do", A demon on the other hand, does NOT have these abilities anymore. They have lost the ability to "manifest flesh", and have lost also their once "corporeal body" (nephillim). They need to "possess" a body now, that is not their own. Now is a good time to refer to the ex-canonical book of Enoch, which WAS apart of the original canon of scripture at one time, placed just before the book of Job:

        As you can see, this text indicates that the demons are directly descended from the nephillim, and that the nephillim are descended from the fallen angels (watchers). Demons have traversed three consecutive stages to end up where they now are. In so doing, they have lost most of their abilities to "penetrate" into the physical like they once had the ability to do. It can be shown, that not all demons share the same abilities. There are "types" of demons that are distinctly different in how they operate, and in some instances, described as having different properties in the way they manifest and interact in the physical.

        The adjective "clouds", is most descriptive (2 Pet.2:17, Jude 12). The relationship between "bruise those upon the earth" and Gen. 3:15 is most evident. All of the titles designated to angels can be either "good" or "fallen", with the exception of the Archangels (even though Satan could have possibly been an Archangel, the bible is silent on this). All angels according to the bible, were either cherubim or seraphim. There are no other "types" given. Satan IS a Cherub! That is how he was created. His NATURE has changed, but not too much else (in form). Its only wise to assume that all "fallen" angels must be of these two types as well, only their "alignment" has changed. Their "structure" (cherub or seraph), did not change when they fell. Their "angelic powers" were NOT changed as well. They are just limited now as to what they are ALLOWED to do. The misconception that when they "left there first habitation", they lost their angelic abilities is absurd. This stems from the perception, that fallen angels are demons. They are NOT!. Demons are directly connected to the nephillim in the scriptures. Their "first habitation" was HEAVEN, now they are confined to HERE (this universe, especially earth). Demons no longer have access to heaven, and furthermore, scripture seems to indicate that demons can NOT FLY! (Matt.12:43, Luke 11:24). The word used in both of those passages in the New Testament, specifically means "walking". Its very important that you understand this, demons are on the "bottom of the totem-pole" . They do not have the same "benefits" so to speak, as they once had.

       There is a tell-tale "mark" if you will, that can be found in the names for the angelic hierarchy. There is the peculiar "im" at the end of most of the names of giant and angel alike. Keep in mind, that the name for the "triune" God is "Elohim" in the Hebrew. Not to confuse God with the Enemy, but this shows a definite linguistic trademark. It is the stamp of "made in heaven". If your still doubting the nature of the nephillim, then you must look at the meaning of their names to get a better picture of what they were. As shown earlier, the term "nephillim" is a generic term designating all the various "tribes". There is a great deal to be learned from the etymology of the names of these things. There were "tribes", and each tribe was distinct. To show the "distinctive" differences between each tribe, we must do a little digging:
 

      The most interesting of these is the translation for the word"Zophim", This word comes from the root from which we get the word "eyes". This name is also a title of one of the offices of the angelic host, the "watchers" (see Dan.4:17). Put in your head the adjective "observe" in description of the Zophim. Bury this correlation into your brain, because later on you will begin to SEE the light in some bible prophecy I will explain later. Needless to say, all the meanings of these names give somewhat of a descriptive picture of what these things were and about. Ancient Hebrew tradition calls the Anakim the "long-necked ones" (compare with the description of what is known as a "reptilian"). The translation for the word "Caphtorim"shows that the Philistines roots are traced to the nephillim. Goliath was a Philistine, and he was also an Anakim. You will find certain nephillim in scripture that have "six fingers and six toes". Another nephillims weapon and armor are recorded in the bible to have weighed between an estimated 300 to 400 pounds! Another giants "bed" is recorded in the bible as being 21 feet long by 13 feet wide (this is based on the measurement of a cubit, which can not be exactly determined today. I'm basing this measurement on the 27 inch cubit). Ancient Hebrew myths and legends record the nephillim as being 300 feet tall! I'm not kidding. Check it out for yourself. I mean, do these sound like "humans" to you? Lets face it, these THINGS were absolutely NOT HUMAN. We are not just talking about "demon possessed men" here, were talking THING!. God will sometimes relate these to the realm of "men" in scripture, as they were FLESH, but they were NOT human. If anything they were half-human at best, and definitely a MUTATION or HYBRID. Thats what the scripture shows!. In essence, they were (are still?) a "doorway of the physical," from one state ( fallen angel), to another (demon). Nephillim are the least powerful of the hierarchy. They are "confined" to a "house of flesh", which limits their "supernatural" capabilities. I'm telling you, they weren't teaching you everything in Sunday school!. These beings are referred ever so subtly under the text. The Lord (in the "first person") makes this proclamation to affirm the "angelic genetics" of these creatures:

        The term "sons of the mighty" is parallel to the use of "sons of the gods". The word "mighty" here is translated [Strong's ref. 410 el, ale; mighty; espec. the Almighty (only used of deity):- God, might, power, strong]. God had only ONE LEGITIMATE SON, so it is NOT referring to THEM in this way. Gesenius translates this term as meaning "sons of the bnai elohim", which makes these "sons", NEPHILLIM!. Notice that the Lord makes this charge to THEM who are in "heaven". The word "heaven" is very intriguing here, it is "shachaq" in the Hebrew meaning "a small firmament"; by anal. as beaten small (by trituration or attrition).There is another word in the bible that is very closely related to the ones we are discussing. This word is"teraphim", which means an "idol"or"statue"[Strong's ref. 8655 teraphiym]. The translation of the word and the scriptures it appears, seems to indicate that they were "statues" of ANGELS used for the purpose of "healing". It must be completely understood that the Hebrews practiced the "worship" of angels. Ancient writings indicate that through this practice, "physical interaction" could be obtained (and was). Never the less, scripture states assuredly that the "worshiping of an idol" is the direct "worship of a fallen angel", it might as well be the real thing (not a statue). The Israelites were consistently falling into idolatry, and the Lord constantly did JUDGE THEM for it. An "idol" acts as a "gateway", giving the demonic host the "gold card" to your soul! Ignorance is not an option here, there will be NO excuse come the day. Catholics and Protestants take note!

        The Sumerians/Babylonians according to archeologists, founded Babylon in the late 3rd millennium B.C. Its original name was called "Babel", which meant "gateway of God". Biblical records, however, indicate an earlier date for the event connected with the building of the structure known as the "Tower of Babel". According to the biblical account, the "tower" was built during the reign of "King Nimrod", the first "King" of Babylon. Nimrod was also a descendent of Noah. The bible is silent on the time-frame of the building of the "tower" of Babel, but conservative bible scholars have placed it between 3500 and 4000 B.C. It could have been much earlier than this, and than again, much later. But all we know, is that by the time of the building of the "tower", the Earth's population had been restored to a certain degree from the devastation of the "deluge". The reference to Nimrod and the beginning of Babylon in the bible, is "centered" around the building of the "tower". We will have to examine a verse very closely, to see what this "tower" was all about.

        The miracles of Christ in the New Testament, are called "shems". They were marks of his divinity. The "signs" and "wonders" in Jer. 32:20, are also called "shems". But the original meaning of the word from its Sumerians origin is "MU"(sham) which means "fiery sky chamber"! (see the Babylonian Epic of Creation, the Enuma Elish). These were associated with what are known as "stelae" in the Babylonian texts. "Stelae" are the objects or memorials associated with the "mu". They are otherwise known as "stone pillars" or OBELISKS that we see throughout all cultures of antiquity in some form or another. As will be shown later, something else is referred to as being "pointed" (obelisk). To Akkadians/Babylonians, and Assyrians, they were known as the "naru" (fiery stones that fly). In Hebrew, the word "ner" means "a pillar that emits light". It is from this word that we get the term "candle". Though I don't espouse to all of the ideologies of the ancient Sumerians researcher, Zecharia Sitchen, his expertise in the area of etymology is to be respected. I would suggest that you read his work entitled "The 12th Planet", to get a good idea of how the languages developed from one-another from the Sumerians, to the Egyptians. The Hebrews integrated a lot of the words from these cultures into their own. Anyhow, as you can see from the breakdown of Gen.11:4, there is a lot more involved here than is usually interpreted. Now I ask you, why did the inhabitants of Babylonia, exert themselves to "make a name", why was the "name" to be placed upon a "tower whose TOP shall reach unto HEAVEN (outer space), and how could the "MAKING of a name" counteract the effects of mankind's "scattering upon the Earth"?. How did they know they were going to be scattered? If they knew they were going to be scattered, then they also knew by WHOM (God). Knowing this, we could assume that they deduced that the only way to counteract this event, would be to LEAVE EARTH! By the implication of the translation itself from the Hebrew, it shows that the "shem" that they made was a "miracle" by definition!. If that is not enough, than you must deal with the "identity" of the only named personage involved with this event, Nimrod. In verse 9 he is called a "mighty hunter" before the Lord. The use of the word "mighty" here is very specific indeed. It is [Strong's ref. 1368 gibbhor;- giant], or other wards, nephillim!. The word for "hunter" is ambiguous. The textual intent seems to imply that Nimrod was in fact a nephillim, but does not say what "type" of hunter he was. I mean, what did he hunt? And if he wasn't a nephillim, than the text would imply that he "hunted" nephillim! Any ways you cut it, the character of Nimrod is related as being anything other than your average, everyday human!. No, there is something more here.

        There is a verse of scripture that quite shocked me when I read the interpretation from the Septuagint. It is translated quite differently in your King James Bible. Actually, the rendition in the King James is absolute "butchery", half of the text is missing, and the translation is completely ludicrous. I remind you again, this translation is much closer to the original. Pick up a Greek Hebrew concordance and check it out. It is a passage of prophecy that I believe to be fulfilled  during the Tribulation. Though it will be denied uni-laterally amongst scholars, this is what it really says:

        This vision of Isaiah's is depicting the time of the end. It is referring to the time of "the day of the Lord". The day of the Lord happens during the Tribulation. This vision is against "Babylon". Babylon is a focus of end-time prophecy. The location of end-time Babylon is, contrary to where 99.9% of bible scholars place it,NOT in the Middle-east, but thats another dissertation. It needs to be noticed here, that it is the "Lord" who brings them, to fulfil HIS wrath!. It must be remembered here, now, that this is as close to the "original" AS YOU CAN GET IT!, I mean, Jesus himself probably did notice the Septuagint, and I didn't hear him complain about anything. Let's go on with this passage now.

        This verse can throw you off if your not paying attention. These are many nations "on the mountains" (high places). Notice that both "kings" and Nations" are represented and "gathered together" (Armageddon). The word "kings" here is "melek" in the Hebrew. Its root comes from "ma'lak" , which denotes that of "angels" of class/rank. As it is stated in verses 1-3, these "nephillim" are referred to as a "war-like nation" (one, singular). The Lord gives them "command", and he BRINGS THEM. Command of what? Command of "fulfilling his wrath"! (vs. 3). Where does he bring them from? Well? Don't think I'm getting a little "off the wall", but look at the next verse.

        Very little of these five verses remains in your King James or any of the other versions. Now, I don't know about you, but "utmost foundation of heaven" does NOT sound like around here (earth). This place is a land "afar off". The use of the word "utmost" is antiquated to "distance". The inference of the use here is as to the "ends of the universe" when read in its context. This is directly connotated with the "day of the Lord" or what's referred to as Armageddon.

        These are very provocative verses of scripture. When exegeted and read in context, the impression left is that most of what's taking place is not of "human" doing. Besides, no humans live at the "utmost foundation of heaven" now do they?. As stated in verse 3, we are dealing with "nephillim" here, actually, by what the text says, NATIONS OF THEM!.Isaiah has a lot of strange things to reveal, and it would be extremely wise to take careful notice, as Isaiah had much to say about Babylon, and the last-days.

        This is one of the most illuminating passages of prophecy in all of scripture. This is dealing with Satan being "cast down" during the tribulation, and the Antichrist's judgement of being cast into hell. In your bible, the word has been translated "dead" in place of "rapha" as you see here. This is NOT correct. There is NOTHING else they could have used here except "rapha" for it to be IN TRUTH. You see the translation for "rapha" is "dead", but its not meant "dead" like you think, in the translation. Nope, this "dead" are the disembodied spirits of Rephaim, or NEPHILLIM. These are evil spirits that are "cast out" onto the earth when Satan is "cast down" at the mid-point of the tribulation. These are the evil spirits that are held in "tarturus" at the moment. I want you to see something here and let it sink in, it is from the "thrones" of the "chief demons", thatALL THE KINGS OF THE NATIONS ARE CONTROLLED BY!. Now, when you equate this passage with chapter 13:1-3, this becomes most disturbing. It seems that, all at once, there is an onslaught appearance of "demons" and "nephillim", capped all off by the presence of Satan himself and the person of Antichrist at the start of the tribulation. Chapter 13:1-3 definitely illustrates that nephillim shall "appear" at the day of the Lord "to fulfill his (God's) wrath". Now, nephillim are "conceived". This leaves only 2 alternatives, they will be "conceived" during this time, or they are and have been "conceiving". It is remarkable how pastors and teachers avoid the un-avoidable interpretations of these passages. These areas of Isaiah are "avoided" ON PURPOSE, because the Hebrew translations are too strange. The interpretations given in modern theological seminaries are not only comical, but are utterly absurd. Even though there is more spoken of Satan and his angels then heaven and God's, there is an absolute refusal to BELIEVE what the bible has to in fact say. Thats why the Church as well as the world still perceives Satan with "little horns and a pitch fork". As shown earlier, Satan has a "seed", and the scripture seems to indicate that this "seed", may in fact be still around, or are going to be in the near future. But now, lets try to find confirmation of Isa.14:9:

        Take a very good look at what your reading here. This passage says, that the "rapture" will happen at or after the time that the "rapha" are let out of "tartarus", and also from what we've seen from Isa.14:9, when Satan is "cast down" upon the earth. Ahh...I know the pre-trib RAPTURE CULT fans are about to throw this document out right about now, but before you do, you might want to take a look at this:

        Most of the Body of Christ is in harmony as to what point Satan is "cast down" at the end. It's at or after  the begining  the Tribulation. Gee...even the Jehovah Witness's will agree with me on this one. This verse is referring to just this time in John's vision of the Tribulation. But take a LOOK at the very next verse:

Ahh.... so sorry the LORD has put a damper on the pre-trib rapture cult parade. The "rapture" happens at or any time after the revealing of Antichrist at the Begining of the tribulation, and you got Old and New Testament CONFIRMATION. To believe in a pre-trib rapture is to believe that Christ can return at "any moment". This is called the Doctrine of IMMINENCE, which is completely APOSTATE from the Word of God and deceives millions. It brings with it a form of WITCHCRAFT. I can give you well over a hundred scriptures against this very doctrine! Actually, it is this very doctrine that will HELP (is right now) the Antichrist as I will show you later. It is the "end-product" of yet an even more malignant delusion against the very doctrine of Jesus Christ....the "false gospel" that is very much of what is coined as THE LIE in the new testament. But for now, lets look at these "covered over" translations. I refer you to this passage:

        This verse is correctly translated "rapha", where you now have "dead" in your bible. Psalm 88 was written at a time when David was in a very "low" spiritual state. David is mourning and in a great deal of anguish. This verse represents a bit of rebellion in David's spirit towards the Lord at this point of time. It is a resentment of his predicament. David is trying to get a reply from God, and out of frustration, comes this "mocking". The word "arise" is very significant. The "rapha"(demons), are those that are held in tarturus (hell). You must understand, David is NOT talking about "dead people" here, he is referring to the "demons" which came from the "Rephaim". To emphasize this, I refer you to these seldom spoken verses:

        The word "rapha" here is also mis-translated "dead" in your bible. This verse shows you where these "rapha" are, in the "depths of hell" (tarturus). They were "transFORMED" into the rapha (death of their "nephillim" bodies) from the flood (under waters). The "inhabitants thereof" would be HUMANS! The "rapha" will "arise" from tartarus in the near future as Satan tries his "coup de gras" during the tribulation. David refers on more than one occasion in your bible to the nephillim subtily, but is now covered over by translation. A couple of verses past Psalm 88:10, David refers to something not seen by mis-translation. Something strange is un-covered when you correctly exegete the verses, and believe what it is saying.

        The word "Emim" here is translated "terrors" in your bible. As I've shown earlier, one of the meanings of the word "Emim" is "terrors". There are six translations for the word "terrors" in your bible, one of them is in reference to the "Emim" (nephillim tribe). You will notice in the verse after 88:15, God uses the word "terrors" again. This time, it is an entirely different translation. This affirms what I've said earlier, "the same, is not always the same". Ancient myths and legends of the Hebrews, tell of what was called "the terrors". Legend has it that, "the terrors"would come in the night and carry away woman and children to eat!. It can be shown, that the roots of all the myths and legends of "monsters", is based upon the "nephillim" of the bible. Now, to look at something quite differently than what you've been used to.

        Hebrew myths give the nephillim a very interesting title. They are referred to as the "awwim" which means "devastators" or "serpents". In some Jewish lore, Eve is called the "mother" of the "serpents". It is interesting to note, that Eve's name in Hebrew is "hawwah"which means "she who makes live". This word is related to the word "hevia" in the Hebrew which signifies a "female serpent". In Arabic, serpent is "hayya", which is a cognate of the word "hayat", meaning "life". Satan is referred to as "that Old Serpent", and took the form of a serpent in the garden of Eden. It is only logical that Satan's "seed" would be referred to as "serpents" as well. The scripture does in fact show this. Some of the translations for the word "serpents" in your bible, are quite different than what you would expect. Not all "serpent's" in the bible are the same, and I'm not talking about "snakes" or "reptiles here". The bible would refer to some of these "serpent's" as being quite different. We sometimes take things for granted in what we've heard or read from the bible, to the point of over-looking the obvious. Then again, sometimes the "obvious" is so "fantastic", in the end, the TRUTH escapes being detected. This is the nature of TRUTH and DECEPTION. We as Christians, have to be SEEKERS of that "truth". And the truth is, this next verse of scripture is a prime example of the "truth" escaping detection. You need to take a good look at the translations of all these words in this verse, for its not what it seems to be at all. Modern theology covers over these translations to hide the OBVIOUS. This is the nature of APOSTASY, and it always starts directly from the Word. To "overlook" on purpose is apostasia. To "re-define" or add or take away is apostasy. So I ask you, what do you think this is saying to you:

            I believe this to be in reference to what we view today as "UFO's" . The correct translation for the word "cockatrice" in your bible is "viper"[Strong's ref. 6848 tsepha]. It comes from the root for "Zophim"or "watchers" [Strong's ref. 6839 Tsophiym]. The actual translation for the word "serpent"at the end of the verse is [Strong's ref. 8314 saraph]. This is the translation for the word "seraph" as in "seraphim" (plural). The translation for the word "fiery" is ALSO is ref. 8314 "saraph", or seraphim. Both these words mean the exact SAME!. This is very important, as this is NOT a mistake or a fluke. That the Seraphim are characterized as "serpent's" is very strange indeed. Seraphim are "angels" as illustrated earlier. Obviously, these are NOT of the "good alignment", and it seems they are alluded to as "serpent's" in scripture to designate them as such. The striking description of these Seraph's are their "copper color" (orange), and the adjectives that describe "luminescence" in fact as to their appearance (fiery, burning) are quite strange. This description is a lot different from the ones given by Isaiah (Isa.6:2,6:6) and the ONLY two may I remind you scripturally, but it is the exact same word used [Strong's ref. 8314]. The only thing Isaiah relates to us about seraphim is that they have "6 wings". The allusions to "obscurity" and "dimness" is quite interesting in the translation for flying. UFO's are identified with just such behavior. It is also quite interesting to note here, that the most prevalently sighted color of lights in UFO sightings historically, is orange! (copper?). For the record, there are seven references to the word "serpents" in the New Testament. Of those seven, only ONE is used in relation to "snakes" or "reptiles" literally. The other "6" translations of "serpents" in the Greek are used in direct relationship with Satan!. They are [Strong's ref. 3789 ophis, of - is; (through the idea of sharpness of vision); fig. a snake, (fig.) sly, cunning, malicious, espec. Satan:- serpent]. Oh, by the way, the reference to the evil one in the bible is 13 times in the Old Testament, and 33 times in the New Testament! (refer to the 33rd degree of Freemasonry or Luciferianism). If I were you, I'd check out some of these six verses in the New Testament. You will find that Jesus uses this translation for serpents four times, in reference (description) to some of the people he was addressing (nephillim?). The allusion to "vision" in the translation of "ophis" is very interesting. It comes from an earlier root [Strong's ref. 3700 optomai, op - tom - ahee; to gaze(i.e. with wide-open eyes at something), a watching at a distance:- appear, look, see, shew self]. It's from this root that we get our word "optometrist". Now lets SEE. watchers, Zophim, serpents, Satan, all have the relationship of "eyes" or "seeing". The ancient Assyrian god "Ashur", is known as the "winged-disk god". One of the descendants of Noah's just after the flood, was the Assyrian King Asher, the builder of Nineveh. Legend has it (see Zend Avesta), that the winged-disk god "Ashur", descended into the temple of the King ofAssyria one Evening and communed with him. Myths have it, that the King made a "treaty" with the "demi-god". Oh, by the way, the meaning of the word "Ashur" is "all-seeing"!. In the Persian epic of the Bundahishn, the demi-god Angra Mainyu (nephillim) is known as "serpent with two feet". The Testament of Amram of the Persians refers to Angra's father as the "Watcher with a visage like a viper". Serpent worship has been found from the most ancient antiquity, amongst all cultures, around all of the world. It is one of the most ancient of worship systems and it is directly related to Satan, though obscured by various pagan theologies. Its as old as Sun worship, and can be found integrated into most modern day religions. One of the biggest kept secrets of Freemasonry (Luciferianism, is the belief and worship of fallen angels that came to earth and created the "holy Grail" (bloodline) which will eventually give the world the "2nd Messiah". Some of the offspring said to be of this bloodline are Jesus Christ, Gatauma Buddha, Charlemagne, Constantine, the Merovingian dynasty, King Solomon, King Og of Bashan, Nimrod, and Anak and his "7" sons to name a few (what I'm telling you is kept highly secretive amongst the masonic elite). Those of this bloodline that live today are said to be the Rothschild dynasty, the Habsburg's, and the "Royal" family (Stuart's, Windsors', and SINclair's). The fathers of the "bloodline" (nephillim), are referred to as the "Adepts" or "Hierophants", or the "illuminated ones", and are communicated to through "channeling" (spiritism). This just so happens to be 99% of the basis behind the theologies of the modern New Age movement, Buddhism, Hinduism, Mormonism, NAZI-ISM (the Aryan or "pure" race) Druidism, Cabalism and so on. In fact it can be shown to be integrated into every religion on the planet with the exclusion of "true" Christianity! Scary huh? Actually when you also throw in the fact that the "modernized" version of Darwin's theory of "evolution" purports that man evolved from at one point, "reptilian bipeds" , you can see to what extent this ideology has permeated even into the world of atheism, and science! (see Carl Sagan's The Dragons of Eden). I'm telling you (to the utter disgust of my fellow brethren, the Church at large), that what science has found in fossil evidence of Neanderthal man, is none other than the evidence of certain races of nephillim (non-human hybrid. Flesh and blood without a soul, "seed of Satan!") or "troglodytes" (cave dwellers). Now, let's look at something here a little differently than what you've been used to. No pastor will ever tell you or show you this like this, even though he knows what it really says, for he refuses to believe.

       The translation for the word "fiery" here is [Strong's ref. 8314 saraph] or properly annotated "seraphim" (plural). These are ANGELIC BEINGS, and they are DEMONIC! The word for serpent here is "nachash" in Hebrew (snake), but it comes from the root [Strong's ref. 5172 nachash, naw - khash; a prim. root; to hiss, i.e. whisper a magic spell, divine, enchanter, enchantment, diligently observe]. Notice the allusions to sorcery, magic, and "EYES" (observe). The adjective "fiery" also infers "light" in its translation. Now, I'm sorry, but these "serpents" were NOT "poisonous copper colored snakes" no matter how you cut it after you've read the correct translation. The translation specifically says they are SERAPHIM! The translation for these two words are identical to Isa.14:29, the only thing missing here is the adjective "flying". There is confirmation of this, but it has been overlooked and mis-interpreted. Th